The bankers gain on a certain sum due $1\dfrac{1}{2} $years hence is $\dfrac{3}{25}$ of the bankers discount.The rate percent is:
5$ \dfrac{1}{5} $%
9$ \dfrac{1}{11} $%
8$ \dfrac{1}{8} $%
6$ \dfrac{1}{6} $%
Explanation:
Let, B.D = Re. 1.
| Then, B.G. = Re.$ \dfrac{3}{25} $. |
| $\therefore$ T.D. = (B.D. - B.G.) = Re.$ \left(1 -\dfrac{3}{25} \right) $= Re.$ \dfrac{22}{25} $. |
| Sum =$ \left(\dfrac{1 \times (22/25)}{1-(22/25)} \right) $= Rs.$ \dfrac{22}{3} $. |
| S.I. on Rs.$ \dfrac{22}{3} $for 1$ \dfrac{1}{2} $years is Re. 1. |
| $\therefore$ Rate = | $\left(\dfrac{100\times1}{22/3\times3/2}\right)$ | =$ \dfrac{100}{11} $= 9$ \dfrac{1}{11} $%. |